A question for credobaptists

I was reading a Baptist post somewhere talking about improper Presbyterian administration of the sacrament of baptism, and I (a confessional Presbyterian) began to wonder: What is the Baptist argument against the fact that the church universally practiced infant baptism until the 16th century? Isn’t “believer’s baptism” as much an innovation as pastorettes, dispensationalism, pentecostalism, and Mormonism? (Not that all these are equally bad, of course.)

One may say, “Well, yes, but Scripture teaches believers baptism.” But if that were the case, wouldn’t the Holy Spirit see to it that a remnant was practicing such baptism over the first 1500 years of the New Testament church?

Comments are open. This is not the place to argue the Scriptural case for believers baptism or infant baptism, but I would be grateful if someone could summarize Baptist opinion about “the gap.”

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